Witnessing to Jehovah’s Witnesses (JWs)

These documents show that the Watchtower Society advocated worshiping Jesus, also
known as Michael the archangel,  equally to worshiping God, from 1893 until 1953.

Does the Watchtower Society’s charter still say their purpose is, among many other
things, to “worship Jesus.?”

3) God’s standards on restricting united public worship (paragraph 15).

A.Daniel 6:7, 10, 11, 16 (Authorities restrict public prayer for 30 days.)

B.Twentieth-century religious authorities restricted public prayer for 46 years until 1989.

Documentation: August 15, 1970, THE WATCHTOWER, p.493, paragraph 16; June 15,
1990, THE WATCHTOWER, p.28; October
15, 1979, THE WATCHTOWER, p.20, paragraphs 7 and 8; 1995 Yearbook, pp.212, 213,
232, 233.

The Watchtower Society directed all JWs in Mexico to stop all public appearance of
being religious
including public prayer and songs of praise for 46 years until 1989, yet you claim to be
faithful like Daniel who
refused to obey the 30-day prohibition against public prayer.

4)     God’s standards on admiring the political wild beast described in the book of
Revelation (paragraph 16).

A.Revelation 13:3; 17:8 (Admirers of the wild beast and image.)

B.Twentieth-century religious authorities admired a political organization they later
claimed was part of
the wild beast’s image.

Documentation: August 1, 1967, THE WATCHTOWER, p.454; June 1, 1994, THE
WATCHTOWER, p.12, paragraph 17, September
15, 1971, THE WATCHTOWER, p.560, paragraph 8, October 1, 1983, THE WATCHTOWER,
pp.15, 16, paragraph 9, February
15, 1919, THE WATCHTOWER, p.51.

These documents show the Watchtower Society admired the League of Nations, which
they now say was part of
the image of the wild beast. They later claimed they did not admire the League like other
religions, and that the
names of any who did admire the League of Nations “are not found written upon ‘the
scroll of life.’ ”

For the discussion of each of the eight events, biblical and modern, these three
questions are asked:

1) Did God’s standards change?

2) Did God approve of the persons mentioned?

3) Did God accept their worship as being part of true worship?

Questions? If the organization did not actually prophesy the end in 1925 and 1975, then
how come so many Witnesses left the faith immediately afterwards? ("They lost roughly
three-quarters of the movement between 1925 and 1928, then suffered huge losses after
1975, when the end didn't come as they had implied over and over again," said Jim
Penton, an ex-Witness who writes entries on Jehovah's Witnesses for the Encyclopedia
If the Watchtower organization rejects others calling them "inspired" yet the
Watchtower organization does call themselves "God's Spirit-directed Prophet" what is
the difference? Is there such a thing as an "uninspired prophet"? See Organization
claims inspiration
Has the Society ever taught anything scripturally incorrect? See Prophecy Blunders of
the Organization
Might the Society be teaching anything scripturally incorrect now?
Since the Organization has received "new light" regarding the 1914 generation, and
completely changed their view on this, does this mean that all the former Jehovah's
witnesses who were disfellowshipped years ago for the same view the organization is
now teaching will automatically be accepted into fellowship again? Were these Ex-Jw's
in fact disfellowshipped for truth and knew things that the governing body did not? See
Jw's were disfellowshipped for rejecting generation doctrine
Can Jehovah's Witnesses hold and discuss openly with other Jehovah's Witnesses
opinions that differ from orthodox Watch Tower doctrine?
Can individuals read & understand the Bible alone, or do they need an organization and
it's publications to do so? Click here find the answer!
How do you prove from the Bible that 1935 was the year for the selection to heaven
stopped due to being filled? What is the difference between a Catholic appealing to
"what the organization tells him" about December 25 being the date of Jesus’ birthday
and a Jw’ appealing to "what the organization tells him" about the date 1935? Is it not
hypocritical when you chide the "poor deluded Catholic" that his faith cannot find a
Bible passage to support it, when the same goes for you and 1935?
How do you know that there were any vacancies, if any, in the 144,000 class if Jesus
offered this to first century Christians? How can the organization know the exact
number of vacancies today without any records from the first century?
Why are you called, "Jehovah's Witnesses" and not "Christians"? Since Jehovah's
Witnesses appeal to Isa 43:12; 44:8 for scriptural support that they should be called,
"Jehovah's Witnesses" then what was the "new name" prophesied in Isa 62:2? Can't be
"Jehovah's Witnesses", for God already used it 20 chapters earlier. Could the new name
be "Christian" after our savior "Christ"?
Why would the name God gave to His people not be "Christians" since Acts 11:26 says,
"The disciples were first called Christians in Antioch"? Why is the name "Jehovah's
Witness" found nowhere in the New Testament, if that is God's divine name for His
people under the new covenant? Why would God wait almost 2000 years to suddenly
start using the name "Jehovah's Witness". Does this mean that first century Christians
were not known as Jehovah's Witnesses"?
If the name Jehovah is so important, then why is it never used in the entire Greek New
Testament? If men edited out the name of God, "YHWH" when they copied the New
Testament, as only the Watchtower organization claims, then how can we have any
confidence in any of the New Testament? Should we discard the New Testament or the
Watchtower organization as unreliable?
If the name "Jehovah" is so important, then why does Acts 4:12 say, "There is salvation
in no one else; for there is no other name [v10 Jesus Christ] under heaven that has
been given among men, by which we must be saved"? Would this not have been the
logical place for God to have used the name "YHWH"?
What is the correct spelling of God's proper name "Yahweh" or "Jehovah"? If Jehovah's
Witnesses maintain that "Yahweh" is more proper, why do they misspell it "Jehovah"? If
the name of God is so important, then should you not only pronounce it correctly, but
spell it correctly too? Is not spelling more important than pronunciation?
Since the Jehovah's Witness organization currently rejects most of the teachings of its
founder Charles Taze Russell (who was president of the organization from 1879-1916),
and since they also reject "Judge" Joseph Franklin Rutherford, who succeeded Russell
as president from 1916 - 1942, how can we be sure that in 25 more years, Jehovah's
Witnesses won't also reject the current president, Milton G. Henschel (1992 - present), as
they did Russell and Rutherford?
What kind of confidence can anyone have in an organization that rejected its founder
and first two presidents for the first 63 years of its existence? This represents about 53%
of the time they have existed!
Since the Watchtower organization claims "apostolic succession" who was it that
"passed the torch of God's Spirit" to C. T. Russel when he founded the organization?
What was the name of this individual?
In the NWT, every time the Greek word "proskuneo" is used in reference to God, it is
translated as "worship" (Rev 5:14, 7:11, 11:16, 19:4, Jn 4:20, etc.). Every time
"proskuneo" is used in reference to Jesus, it is translated as "obeisance" (Mt 14:33, 28:
9, 28:17, Lk 24:52, Heb 1:6, etc.), even though it is the same word in the Greek (see Gr-
Engl Interlinear). Especially compare the Greek word "prosekunhsan" used with
reference to God in Rev 5:14, 7:11, 11:16, and 19:4 and used with reference to Christ in
Mt 14:33, 28:9, and 28:17. What is the reason for this inconsistency? If the NWT was
consistent in translating "proskuneo" as "worship", how would the verses above
referring to Christ read?
The NWT translates the Greek word "kyrios" as "Jehovah" more than 25 times in the
New Testament (Mt 3:3, Lk 2:9, Jn 1:23, Acts 21:14, Rom 12:19, Col 1:10, 1Thess 5:2,
1Pet 1:25, Rev 4:8, etc.). Why is the word "Jehovah" translated when it does not appear
in the Greek text? Why is the NWT not consistent in translating kyrios (kurion) as
"Jehovah" in Rom 10:9, 1Cor 12:3, Phil 2:11, 2Thess 2:1, and Rev 22:21 (see Gr-Engl
To what was Jesus referring to by the term "this temple" in Jn 2:18- 19? See Jn 2:21.
If the Holy Spirit is God's impersonal active force, why does he directly speak and refer to
himself as "I" and "me" in Acts 13:2?
The NWT translates the Greek words "ego eimi" as "I am" every time it appears (Jn 6:34,
6:41, 8:24, 13:19, 15:5, etc.), except in Jn 8:58 where it is translated as "I have been".
What is the reason for the inconsistency in this translation? If "ego eimi" was translated
in Jn 8:58 the same way it is translated in every other verse in which it appears, how
would Jn 8:58 read?
In Rev 22:12-13, Jesus Christ, the one who is "coming quickly", says of himself, " I am
the Alpha and the Omega, the first and the last, the beginning and the end". In Rev 1:17-
18, Jesus, the one who "became dead, but, look! I am living forever and ever", refers to
himself as the first and the last. Rev 21:6, in speaking of God, says, "...I am the Alpha and
the Omega, the beginning and the end ...". God is also referred to as the "first" and the
"last" in Isa 44:6 and Isa 48:12. How can this be since by definition of these words there
can only be one first and one last?
Jn 1:3 says that Jesus created "all things", but in Isa 44:24, God says that he "by myself"
created the heavens and the earth and asks the question "Who was with me?" when the
heavens and the earth were created. How can this be since if Jesus was created by God,
then he would have been with God when everything else was created?
Col 1:16, in talking about Jesus, says that "... All [other] things have been created
through him and FOR HIM". If Jesus was Michael the Archangel at the time of creation,
would an angel have created all things for himself? Isa 43:7 says God created "everyone
... for my OWN glory...".
The Watchtower Society teaches that the 144,000 of Rev 7:4 is to be taken literally. If
chapter 7 of Revelation is to be taken literally, where then does the Bible say that the
144,000 will come from? (See Rev 7:5- 8).
If the soul is the body, why does Jesus make a distinction between the body and the soul
in Mt 10:28?
The NWT translates Jn 1:1 as "... and the Word was WITH God, and the Word was a god".
How can the Word (Jesus) be "a god" if God says in Deut 32:39, "See now that I-I am he,
and there are NO gods together WITH me ..."?
Jesus Christ is referred to as "Mighty God" in Isa 9:6 ("For there has been a child born to
us, there has been a son given to us ... And his name will be called Wonderful
Counselor, Mighty God ..."). Jehovah is referred to as "Mighty God" in Isa 10:20-21. How
can this be if there is only one God (1Cor 8:4, Isa 43:10, 44:6)?
If Jesus was executed on a torture stake, with both hands together over his head, why
does Jn 20:25 say "...Unless I see in his hands the print of the nailS ...", indicating that
there was more than one nail used for his hands?
Jesus uses the phrase "Truly I say to you, ..." over 50 times in the Bible. In the NWT, the
comma is placed after the word "you" every time except in Lk 23:43, where the comma is
placed after the word "today". Why is the comma placed after "today" instead of after
"you" in this verse? If the translation of this phrase in Lk 23:43 was consistent with the
translation of this phrase in all the other verses in which it appears (see concordance),
and the comma was placed after the word "you", how would it read?
The NWT translates the Greek word "esti" as "is" in almost every instance in the New
Testament (Mt 26:18, 38, Mk 14:44, Lk 22:38, etc.). See Greek-English Interlinear. Why
does the NWT translate this Greek word as "means" in Mt 26:26-28, Mk 14:22-24, and Lk
22:19? Why the inconsistency in the translation of the word "esti"? If the NWT was
consistent and translated the Greek word "esti" as "is" in these verses, what would
these verses say?
In Jn 20:28, Thomas refers to Jesus in Greek as "Ho kyrios moy kai ho theos moy". This
translates literally as "the Lord of me and THE God of me". Why does Jesus, in Jn 20:29,
affirm Thomas for having come to this realization? If Jesus really wasn't the Lord and
THE God of Thomas, why didn't Jesus correct him for making either a false assumption
or a blasphemous statement?
If Christ will not have a visible return to earth, then how will he be seen by "ALL the
tribes of the earth" (Mt 24:30) and by "EVERY eye" (Rev 1:7) when he returns?
If the Holy Spirit is God's impersonal active force, how could he: Be referred to as "he"
and "him" in Jn 16:7-8 and Jn 16:13-14; Bear witness - Jn 15:26; Feel hurt - Isa 63:10;
Be blasphemed against - Mk 3:29; Say things - Ezek 3:24, Acts 8:29, 10:19, 11:12, 21:11,
Heb10:15-17, Rev 2:7; Desire - Gal 5:17; Be outraged - Heb 10:29; Search -1Cor 2:10;
Comfort - Acts 9:31; Be loved - Rom 15:30 ; Be lied to and be God - Acts 5:3-4?
What is the meaning of Rev 14:9-11, which says, "... If anyone worships the wild beast ...
he shall be tormented with fire and sulphur ... And the smoke of their torment ascends
forever and ever ...". Where could "anyone" be "tormented ... forever and ever"?
Jn 1:3 says in reference to Christ, "All things came into existence through him, and
apart from him not even one thing came into existence". How could Christ have been a
created being if ALL things came into existence through him? If Jesus was a created
being, then according to Jn 1:3, Jesus would have had to create himself.
If the spirit of a man has no existence apart from the body, why does Stephen just before
his death in Acts 7:59, pray to Jesus to "receive my spirit"? How could Jesus receive
Stephen's spirit if a man's spirit ceases to exist when the body dies?
If the great crowd is to have everlasting life on paradise EARTH, why does 1Thess 4:17
say, "...we the living who are surviving will, together with them, be caught away in
clouds to MEET THE LORD IN THE AIR; and thus we shall always be with the Lord"?
If there are 144,000 spirit anointed people who have a heavenly hope, and a great crowd
of people who have another hope of everlasting life on paradise earth, why does Paul say
that there is only ONE hope (Eph 4:4), instead of two?
If there is no conscious awareness after death, how could the "spirits in prison" be
preached to by Christ after his death (1Pet 3:18-20) and how could the good news be
"declared also to the dead" (1Pet 4:6)?
In Phil 2:9, the NWT inserts the word "other", even though it doesn't appear in the
original Greek (see Gr-Engl Interlinear). What is the reason for inserting this word? Is
the word "Jehovah" a name? See Ex 6:3, Ps 83:18, and Isa 42:8. How would the verse
read if the word "other" had not been inserted? What does scripture say about adding
words to the Bible? See Prov 30:5-6.
Heb 9:28, speaking of Christ, says "... and the second time he appears..." How can Christ
APPEAR a second time if he will not have a visible return to earth?
Amos 4:11 says, "'I caused an overthrow among you people, like God's overthrow of
Sodom and Gomorrah. And you came to be like a log snatched out of [the] burning; but
you did not come back to me,' is the utterance of Jehovah." How can Jehovah speaking
in this verse refer to another person as God ("... like GOD'S overthrow of Sodom ...")?
In Rev 19:1, where does it say that the "great crowd" will be?
If Christians are persecuted for the sake of Jehovah's name, why did Christ tell the first
Christians that they would be persecuted for the sake of his (Jesus') name instead of
Jehovah's (Mt 24:9, Mk 13:13, Lk 21:12, 17, Jn 15:21, and Acts 9:16)?
In Col 1:15-17, the NWT inserts the word "other" 4 times even though it is not in the
original Greek (see Gr-Engl interlinear). Why is the word "other" inserted? How would
these verses read if the word "other" had not been inserted?
In 2Pet 1:1, the NWT inserts the word "the". Why is it inserted? How would the verse
read if the word "the" was not inserted? What does scripture say about adding words to
the Bible? (See Prov 30:5-6).
In the sermon on the mount, when Jesus was addressing the "great crowd" (Lk 6:17),
why did he tell them in Lk 6:22-23, "...your reward is great in heaven ..."?
In Mt 1:23, who is Matthew referring to here that has been given the name which means
"With Us Is God"?
In Rev 14:13, how can the dead be "happy" and find "rest" if there is no conscious
awareness after death?
If Jesus was executed on a torture stake, with both hands together over his head,
instead of on a cross with both hands outstretched, why does Mt 27:37 say that the sign
"This is Jesus the King of the Jews" was "posted above his HEAD" instead of being
posted above his hands? How could it have been posted above his head if his arms were
stretched out over his head?
In Lk 4:12, the NWT translates "kyrios" (Gr-lord) as "Jehovah", which makes the verse
read "... 'You shall not put Jehovah your God to the test.'" See Gr-Engl Interlinear. Why
is kyrios translated as "Jehovah" in this verse? Was the devil, in Lk 4:9-11, putting
Jehovah to the test or JESUS to the test?
The Bible says that ONLY God is our savior (Hos 13:4, Isa 43:11,45:21, etc.). How can it
be then, that the Bible repeatedly says that Jesus Christ is our savior (Lk 2:11, Phil 3:20,
Tit 2:13, 3:6, 2Pet 1:1, 2:20, 3:18, etc.)?
Referring to Isa 14:9-17, if there is no conscious awareness after death, how could Sheol
"... become agitated at you in order to meet you on coming in..." (v.9), how could the
souls in Sheol "... speak up and say to you..." (v.10-11), how could the souls in Sheol
when "...seeing you will gaze even at you; they will give close examination even to you,
[saying,] 'Is this the man'..." (v. 16-17), and how would you be aware that this was
Heb 3:1 refers to "holy brothers, partakers of the heavenly calling". In Mk 3:35, Jesus
says, "Whoever does the will of God, this one is my brother ...". Therefore, according to
the Bible, whoever does the will of God is a brother of Jesus and a partaker of the
heavenly calling. How can this be if the Watchtower Society teaches that only 144,000
people go to heaven?
Heb 11:16, in speaking about some of the faithful people of the Old Testament (Abel,
Noah, Abraham, etc.) says, "But now they are reaching out for a better [place], that is,
one belonging to heaven..." and, "... their God for he has made a city ready for them."
The footnote on the word "city" refers to HEAVENLY Jerusalem of Heb 12:22 and Rev 21:
2. How can this be since according to the teachings of the Watchtower Society, the only
people who will go to heaven are the 144,000 spirit anointed who have been chosen from
people who lived after Christ died?
Rev 20:10 says, "And the Devil ... the wild beast and the false prophet [already were];
and they will be tormented day and night forever and ever." Where will the devil, the
wild beast, and the false prophet be "tormented day and night forever and ever"?
In Lk 24:36-39 and in Jn 20:26-27, Jesus showed his disciples the wounds in his body as
proof of his resurrection. If Jesus' body had been destroyed by God after he died, how
could Jesus show the disciples his body which had the wounds in his hands, feet, and
side and claim that he is not just a spirit, "because a spirit does not have flesh and
bones just as you behold that I have" (Lk 24:39)?
If Christ was created by God and was the wisdom of God (Prov 8:1-4, 12, 22-31), then
before Jesus would have been created, God would have had to have been without
wisdom. How is it possible that God could have ever been without wisdom?
Rev 7:11 says that "before the throne" is in heaven where "all the angels were
standing". Rev 14:2-3 says "And I heard a sound out of heaven ... And they were singing
as if a new song before the throne ...". Rev 7:9 says, "... look, a great crowd ... standing
before the throne...". Rev 7:14-15 says, "...There are the ones that come out of the great
tribulation ... That is why they are before the throne of God ...". Therefore, if "before the
throne " means in heaven (Rev 7:11, 14:2-3), and the "great crowd" is "before the
throne" (Rev 7:9, 7:14-15), where does that mean that the great crowd will be?
If Jesus Christ is Michael the Archangel, how can Mt 25:31 say, "When the Son of man
arrives in his glory, and ALL the angels with him, ...". Since "all the angels" would
certainly include Michael the Archangel, is it possible that Jesus could return with
In Lk 20:37-38, how could Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob be "all living to him (God)", since
they all died hundreds of years before Jesus said this?
If the soul dies when the body dies, how could the "souls" of Rev 6:9- 11, who were of
those who had been "slaughtered" (i.e., killed), cry out "with a loud voice, saying: 'Until
when Sovereign Lord ..."?
In Mt 28:19, Jesus tells his disciples to baptize "people of all the nations ...in the name of
the Father and of the Son and of the holy spirit". Why would the disciples be instructed
to baptize in the name of anybody or anything who was not God? Do Jehovah's
Witnesses follow the command of Jesus and baptize "in the name of the Father and of
the Son and of the holy spirit"?
If the human soul IS the person, how could the soul go out of a person (Gen 35:18) or
come back into a person (1Kings 17:21)?
The Watchtower Society teaches that the earth will never be destroyed or depopulated.
How can it be, then, that God says in Isa 51:6, "... the earth itself will wear out, and its
inhabitants will die like a mere gnat ...", and that Jesus says in Mt 24:35, "Heaven and
earth will pass away...", and that John says in Rev 21:1 that he saw "... a new heaven
and a NEW earth, for the former heaven and the FORMER earth had passed away, and
the sea is no more."?
Referring to Lk 12:4-5, what would be left of a person after they were killed that could be
thrown into Gehenna?
Who or what does the spirit of Christ (Phil 1:19, Gal 4:6, Rom 8:9) refer to? In Gal 4:6,
how is it possible that the spirit of Christ could come into our hearts? How is it possible
that the spirit of CHRIST could reside in someone? If what the Watchtower Society
teaches is true, how could Paul make this statement if Christ was a spirit person residing
in heaven?
In Jn 8:56, Jesus says, "Abraham your father rejoiced greatly in the prospect of seeing
my day, and he saw it and rejoiced". Since Abraham died hundreds of years before Jesus
said this, how could Jesus say that Abraham "saw it and rejoiced", if there is no
conscious awareness after death?
In Jn 6:51, Jesus says that a person must eat "of this bread" in order to "live forever",
and that "the bread that I give IS my flesh". In Jn 6:63, Jesus says "... Unless you eat the
flesh of the son of man and drink his blood, you have no life in yourselves." In Jn 6:54-
55, Jesus says, "He that feeds on my flesh and drinks my blood has everlasting life..."
and "... for my flesh is true food and my blood is true drink." Do you partake of the flesh
of Christ , as Jesus commanded, in order to have life in yourself and in order to live
Every true Christian would agree that we should follow the commands of God. In Mk 9:7,
God the Father commands us to listen to Jesus. Do you follow this command and listen to
Jesus? After all, Jesus died for your personal sins (1Jn 2:2, 1Pet 2:24). Jesus tells us to
go directly to him (Mt 11:28-30), and the Father commanded us to listen to Jesus. Why?
Because JESUS gives us everlasting life (Jn 10:28), and so that JESUS will enter our
house and be with us and give us the right to sit on his throne (Rev 3:20- 21). Do you
pray to Jesus as Paul and the early Christians did (1Cor 1:2)? Do you partake of the flesh
of Christ as Jesus commanded (Jn 6:51)? If not, then are you following the command of
the Father who said "Listen to him"?
Series of questions?
As many are aware, JW's have for years had a two-tier class system in place. In fact,
when I was at Bethel, Freddy used to tell us for years they called them "Secondary
Christian" aka "second class". According to the boys in writing, God put this second
class system in FULL SWING OR place in 1935. So this afternoon I get a call from this non-
JW I have known for some years. I told him the next time a JW stopped by to ask them
this question: "How do you prove from the Bible that 1935 was the year that the
selection to heaven stopped due to being filled?" On Saturday, 2 friends stopped by his
house in service. He and his wife invited them in and allowed them to go through their
little funky CANNED presentation from this month's KM. After their friends finished, they
said, "We have a question," and they asked them to show them from their KJV or their
JW Bible where it indicates that in 1935 the door to heaven was shut? We all know what
happened. They could not take them to the Bible and show them that, so they asked to
return on Sunday with someone who was more INFORMED ON EXPLAINING THE
DEEEEEEEPER THINGS IN THE BIBLE so the couple agreed. Today the brother returned
with one of the ELDERS. YEP they get to COUNT it as a RV. Anyway the elder prepared
himself before they came. JW's have a very up-to-date Kingdom Hall, you see. They have
a computer in the Elder's Office at the hall so the elder printed out a ton of WT
publications to take over. I guess to show the non-JW that it does states 1935 as the year
the door was closed "IN PRINT". Due to the fact that I had prepared him, the non-JW was
ready. The elder went into the talk that Rutherford gave in DC, and showed him all the
articles that stated the door shut in 1935. The non-JW was ready with his questions. SO
HE ASKED HIM a series of questions:

1. Were ANY of the publications that stated 1935 as the year, INSPIRED?

2. Was the Writer of those articles INSPIRED?

3. WAS J.F. Rutherford INSPIRED WHEN he gave that talk in DC stating that 1935 was the

We all know what the poor elder had to say to ALL those questions 1. NO 2. NO 3. NO. SO
THEN MY MAN said he asked the elder again, "Could you take me to the Inspired Word of
God using either your Bible or mine and show me where it indicates 1935 as the year the
door to heaven was shut? Once again the poor elder couldn't do it. So my friend asked
him, "Since you can't take me directly to the Bible and show me this, unlike if I asked is
stealing ok then would you agree that it calls for some form of INTERPRETATION?" OUR
DEAR ELDER MADE a serious mistake here for he said, "Yes it does." So my dear friend
asked him, "Who in the JW religion does the interpretation? In my faith, it's the Pope,
who does it for you?" Well, the bro told him the FDS helps us to understand the deeper
meaning of things. So he asked him, "Are you saying that they INTERPRET THE BIBLE
FOR YOU?" and the elder said, "Yes they do." I had already told him that JW's normally
say (if they are UP-TO -DATE): "We don't try to interpret the Bible, the Bible says
interpretation belong to Jehovah." So the dear elder opened his mouth and inserted his
foot. So the non-JW told him that he had spoken to a former Bethelite who worked at the
World Headquarters of JW's aka "1" who indicated to him that, "As JW's, we don't do
interpretations since it only belongs to Jehovah." So he said at this point, the poor elder
just started to get bent out of shape. He was lost, so the elder told him that what he
Bible; but first he needed to learn the basics. So my man asked him, "If I have a Bible
study, will I then be able to turn to the Inspired Word of God and find the 1935 date
showing that God shut the door?" The poor elder told him, "No, he would not. BUT you
would understand how we came to understand that 1935 was the date according to the
Bible." You've got to feel sorry for the dear elder and especially the poor publisher who
saw an elder bring a ton of UNINSPIRED printouts and couldn't just take the Word of God
and answer the man's question. So the next time a JW stops by, ask for Inspired Word of
God Bible text that says that in 1935 the door was shut. Don't settle for anything less
than the real Inspired Word of God, not some Knock off brand called the WT
publications. Is it not amazing how when a non-JW knows just a little about the
organization and WT teachings how they can bring your average 20-40 year JW to his
knees just by asking a few simple questions. How sad!
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